Monika_HR
Hi,
I am working on Leave policies for my organisation, and in the Maternity Leaves we have included a constraint that says the concerned female employee must have served us for a minimum period of 2 years only then she is eligible to opt for the Marital leaves.
Is it ok to put such constrain or is it not legally right?

From India, Noida
fc.vadodara@nidrahotels.com
734

It is legally not right, please refer the MB Act and accordingly draft the Leave Policy if required so
From India, Ahmadabad
Community Support and Knowledge-base on business, career and organisational prospects and issues - Register and Log In to CiteHR and post your query, download formats and be part of a fostered community of professionals.







Contact Us Privacy Policy Disclaimer Terms Of Service

All rights reserved @ 2024 CiteHR ®

All Copyright And Trademarks in Posts Held By Respective Owners.