Hi,
Had a query with regards to gratuity application. We are a organisation of 25 and has been into existence since 2005. We are taking up gratuity benefit for our employees and was trying to calculate the % of basic which should be considered monthly as gratuity.
In the whole process realised that if an employee completes 5 years and has a yearly increment of min 15-20% on his salary, how is the liability of employer justified when we consider the 4.81% of gratuity followed by companies generally and the gratuity payment post 5 years will be based on last drawn basic salary.
Please clarify.
Raj
From India, Mumbai
1Had a query with regards to gratuity application. We are a organisation of 25 and has been into existence since 2005. We are taking up gratuity benefit for our employees and was trying to calculate the % of basic which should be considered monthly as gratuity.
In the whole process realised that if an employee completes 5 years and has a yearly increment of min 15-20% on his salary, how is the liability of employer justified when we consider the 4.81% of gratuity followed by companies generally and the gratuity payment post 5 years will be based on last drawn basic salary.
Please clarify.
Raj
From India, Mumbai
Pls click the link and get calculation.
Gratuity Calculator, Gratuity Calculator India, Online Gratuity Calculator
From India, Pune
Gratuity Calculator, Gratuity Calculator India, Online Gratuity Calculator
From India, Pune
Hi,
Thanks for the same. But my query is not how to conclude on the gratuity figure. Am quoting an example for your understanding:
Assuming i have an employee with CTC of Rs.10000/- in the year 2008 and an increment of 5,000 is made to salary every year.
Basic salary is calculated as 40% of CTC
So, employee's salary and Basic salary each year till 2012 is as follows
2008-Rs.10000-Rs.4000
2009-Rs.15000-Rs.6000
2010-Rs.20000-Rs.8000
2011-Rs.25000-Rs.10000
2012-Rs.30000-Rs.12000
Now gratuity would be contributed by company or kept aside on a month on month basis as per the basic mentioned above each year
But when we end up paying employee at the end of 5 years we take the calculation as LAST DRAWN MONTHLY BASIC SALARY/26*15 days*5years
considering the 4.8% of basic as the monthly contribution towards gratuity, how is the co going to compensate on the incremental aspect of the employee gratuity calculation.
Raj
From India, Mumbai
Thanks for the same. But my query is not how to conclude on the gratuity figure. Am quoting an example for your understanding:
Assuming i have an employee with CTC of Rs.10000/- in the year 2008 and an increment of 5,000 is made to salary every year.
Basic salary is calculated as 40% of CTC
So, employee's salary and Basic salary each year till 2012 is as follows
2008-Rs.10000-Rs.4000
2009-Rs.15000-Rs.6000
2010-Rs.20000-Rs.8000
2011-Rs.25000-Rs.10000
2012-Rs.30000-Rs.12000
Now gratuity would be contributed by company or kept aside on a month on month basis as per the basic mentioned above each year
But when we end up paying employee at the end of 5 years we take the calculation as LAST DRAWN MONTHLY BASIC SALARY/26*15 days*5years
considering the 4.8% of basic as the monthly contribution towards gratuity, how is the co going to compensate on the incremental aspect of the employee gratuity calculation.
Raj
From India, Mumbai
There is an accounting procedure for Gratuity provision in the Books of accounts.
If you consult your Finance Head or an Insurance expert, they will explain
Basically following facts are taken into consideration
1. Attrition percentage
2. Percentage increase in salary over years
3. Projected interest
There are a few more figures they take and I am not a finance expert to explain all. But 4.8 percentage is more than sufficient cover gratuity provision
Assuming that increase is 12% every year, and assume that gratuity provision on the existing basis every year should fetch 12% interest, then you are very closer to the grtauity amount on the last drawn basic. There still may be some gap which will be set off by attrition
T Sivasankaran
From India, Chennai
If you consult your Finance Head or an Insurance expert, they will explain
Basically following facts are taken into consideration
1. Attrition percentage
2. Percentage increase in salary over years
3. Projected interest
There are a few more figures they take and I am not a finance expert to explain all. But 4.8 percentage is more than sufficient cover gratuity provision
Assuming that increase is 12% every year, and assume that gratuity provision on the existing basis every year should fetch 12% interest, then you are very closer to the grtauity amount on the last drawn basic. There still may be some gap which will be set off by attrition
T Sivasankaran
From India, Chennai
Dear Mr.Raj
The figure of 4.81% is arrived at as follows
Let Rs.100 be the wages of the employee(Basic + DA)
Therefore one day wage is Rs.100/26 = 3.84
Therefore 15 days wages is 3.84 x 15 = 57.69. This is for one year of continuous service or for 12 months.
Therefore the monthly liability is arrived at by dividing 57.69 by 12 and the answer is equal to 4.807 or 4.81.
As the gratuity liability per month for a wage of Rs.100 is 4.81. when expressed as a percentage the liability is stated as 4.81%.
This is a figure for the purpose of accounting and is shown as a monthly liability of the employer towards gratuity in respect of all the employees and might be kept aside as "Gratuity Fund" in the books of account or might be kept aside as a separate fund or might be given to a gratuity trust formed by the employer with the approval of the Government. If any employee leaves the company before completing five years of continuous service, then the employer need not pay gratuity. Such amounts would keep on adding to the "Gratuity Fund". In case of those who leave the company after five years, the liability of the employer would be met from the fund. If the funds are not sufficient then the employer has to make good the difference.m. The 4.81 percent is used more to assess the liability of the employer under the head "gratuity" than for anything else.
With regards
From India, Madras
The figure of 4.81% is arrived at as follows
Let Rs.100 be the wages of the employee(Basic + DA)
Therefore one day wage is Rs.100/26 = 3.84
Therefore 15 days wages is 3.84 x 15 = 57.69. This is for one year of continuous service or for 12 months.
Therefore the monthly liability is arrived at by dividing 57.69 by 12 and the answer is equal to 4.807 or 4.81.
As the gratuity liability per month for a wage of Rs.100 is 4.81. when expressed as a percentage the liability is stated as 4.81%.
This is a figure for the purpose of accounting and is shown as a monthly liability of the employer towards gratuity in respect of all the employees and might be kept aside as "Gratuity Fund" in the books of account or might be kept aside as a separate fund or might be given to a gratuity trust formed by the employer with the approval of the Government. If any employee leaves the company before completing five years of continuous service, then the employer need not pay gratuity. Such amounts would keep on adding to the "Gratuity Fund". In case of those who leave the company after five years, the liability of the employer would be met from the fund. If the funds are not sufficient then the employer has to make good the difference.m. The 4.81 percent is used more to assess the liability of the employer under the head "gratuity" than for anything else.
With regards
From India, Madras
Dear Mr.Harikrishnan,
Thanks for your explanation. Its quite a detailed one.
On the same note, just one more query. Assuming that 4.8% of the basic is the gratuity contribution accounted on a monthly basis, to be more safer can the employer increase the % to say 5% or more.
Regards
Raj
From India, Mumbai
Thanks for your explanation. Its quite a detailed one.
On the same note, just one more query. Assuming that 4.8% of the basic is the gratuity contribution accounted on a monthly basis, to be more safer can the employer increase the % to say 5% or more.
Regards
Raj
From India, Mumbai
I think it is more a tax related issue. I do not think providing funds more than what is accepted in accounting norms will be treated as expenses. T Sivasankaran
From India, Chennai
From India, Chennai
Dear Mr.Raj
Assessing the monthly gratuity liability at 4.81% is for the purpose of providing a gratuity fund or a reserve for meeting the obligations for the payment of gratuity. This amount will be shown as having been credited to the gratuity fund of the company/establishment and in the books of accounts probably would be shown as "provision for gratuity". This provision for gratuity remains with the company and this provision when made every month/quarterly/halfyearly/annually does not flow out of the company's funds. Therefore if you make a provision for gratuity liability at more than 4.81% there is no legal bar for that action.
On the other hand when the company makes a payment of gratuity to its employees, there is an out flow of cash and this becomes an expenditure to be shown in the income-expenditure statement and will be reflected in the profit or loss made by the company. If the employee is covered by the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act, the maximum amount of gratuity payable is Rupees ten lakhs and this amount could be claimed by the company as a valid and legal expenditure and deducted from the income and on this Rupees ten lakhs the company need not pay tax. On the other hand if the company pays more than Rupees ten lakhs to an employee covered by the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act, then for the amount paid in excess of Rupees ten lakhs the company may have to pay tax.
There are instances where the companies make payment of gratuity to their employees covered by the PG Act at a rate higher than that prescribed under the Payment of Gratuity Act. Also there are other instances of employees who are not covered by the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act being paid gratuity at the same rates as prescribed under the PG Act or at a higher rate. In such cases what are the liabilities of the companies under the tax laws, an expert in taxation will be able to give a correct picture.
From India, Madras
Assessing the monthly gratuity liability at 4.81% is for the purpose of providing a gratuity fund or a reserve for meeting the obligations for the payment of gratuity. This amount will be shown as having been credited to the gratuity fund of the company/establishment and in the books of accounts probably would be shown as "provision for gratuity". This provision for gratuity remains with the company and this provision when made every month/quarterly/halfyearly/annually does not flow out of the company's funds. Therefore if you make a provision for gratuity liability at more than 4.81% there is no legal bar for that action.
On the other hand when the company makes a payment of gratuity to its employees, there is an out flow of cash and this becomes an expenditure to be shown in the income-expenditure statement and will be reflected in the profit or loss made by the company. If the employee is covered by the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act, the maximum amount of gratuity payable is Rupees ten lakhs and this amount could be claimed by the company as a valid and legal expenditure and deducted from the income and on this Rupees ten lakhs the company need not pay tax. On the other hand if the company pays more than Rupees ten lakhs to an employee covered by the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act, then for the amount paid in excess of Rupees ten lakhs the company may have to pay tax.
There are instances where the companies make payment of gratuity to their employees covered by the PG Act at a rate higher than that prescribed under the Payment of Gratuity Act. Also there are other instances of employees who are not covered by the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act being paid gratuity at the same rates as prescribed under the PG Act or at a higher rate. In such cases what are the liabilities of the companies under the tax laws, an expert in taxation will be able to give a correct picture.
From India, Madras
Thanks for the clarification Mr.Harikrishnan & Mr.Sivasankaran!!!
Is the term "if you make a provision for gratuity liability at more than 4.81% there is no legal bar for that action" used again with context to the tax benefits or Gratuity Act. Just trying to understand if it is illegal?
From India, Mumbai
Is the term "if you make a provision for gratuity liability at more than 4.81% there is no legal bar for that action" used again with context to the tax benefits or Gratuity Act. Just trying to understand if it is illegal?
From India, Mumbai
Dear Mr Raj
No law requires an employer to make a provision for gratuity in his finances/accounts. The only obligation is to pay gratuity at the appropriate time when the payment falls due. Companies make a provision for gratuity just to have a reserve fund to meet the contingencies arising when gratuity becomes payable. Some companies go in for a group gratuity scheme offered by Insurance Companies. Again there is no law which requires an employee to join a group gratuity scheme. However in the case of insurance, the situation is different. Please read section 4A of the Payment of Gratuity Act. This section requires an employer to take out an insurance, insuring his liability to pay gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act.In other words, the employers liability to pay gratuity is insured by the Insurance Company. Again please read the opening line of section 4A(1) which reads as "With effect from such date as may be notified by the appropriate Government-----etc., This means that section 4A comes into effect only from the date notified by the Government. As far as my knowledge goes the Central Government had not made any notification under section 4A. Neither the Government of Tamilnadu had made any notification under section 4A. I am not aware of the situation in other States. Therefore in effect section 4A has not come into operation. Therefore the conclusions are
1.No law prescribes the creation and maintenance of a gratuity fund by the employer.
2.The provision for gratuity is at the sole discretion of the employer. The rate at which the provision has to be made is also at the discretion of the employer.
4.Section 4A of the Payment of Gratuity Act which requires an employer to insure his liability to pay gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity ACt has not yet been notified and therefore is not in force now, though it forms part of the Payment of Gratuity Act.
With regards
From India, Madras
No law requires an employer to make a provision for gratuity in his finances/accounts. The only obligation is to pay gratuity at the appropriate time when the payment falls due. Companies make a provision for gratuity just to have a reserve fund to meet the contingencies arising when gratuity becomes payable. Some companies go in for a group gratuity scheme offered by Insurance Companies. Again there is no law which requires an employee to join a group gratuity scheme. However in the case of insurance, the situation is different. Please read section 4A of the Payment of Gratuity Act. This section requires an employer to take out an insurance, insuring his liability to pay gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity Act.In other words, the employers liability to pay gratuity is insured by the Insurance Company. Again please read the opening line of section 4A(1) which reads as "With effect from such date as may be notified by the appropriate Government-----etc., This means that section 4A comes into effect only from the date notified by the Government. As far as my knowledge goes the Central Government had not made any notification under section 4A. Neither the Government of Tamilnadu had made any notification under section 4A. I am not aware of the situation in other States. Therefore in effect section 4A has not come into operation. Therefore the conclusions are
1.No law prescribes the creation and maintenance of a gratuity fund by the employer.
2.The provision for gratuity is at the sole discretion of the employer. The rate at which the provision has to be made is also at the discretion of the employer.
4.Section 4A of the Payment of Gratuity Act which requires an employer to insure his liability to pay gratuity under the Payment of Gratuity ACt has not yet been notified and therefore is not in force now, though it forms part of the Payment of Gratuity Act.
With regards
From India, Madras
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