Hi,

I have heard that the Indian garment industry has a man:machine ratio of 2.54, and for Bangladesh, it is 1.15. What does this mean? Is it the direct labor to direct machine ratio, or does it include everyone from the CEO to the dispatch person in the industry? How do I calculate the man:machine ratio? Please tell me.

Thank you.

From India, Mumbai

Dear Chandru,

The man-machine ratio refers to the number of manpower required to perform a job in proportion to the number of machines in operation. For example, machines include cutting machines, sewing machines, k/b machines, sample sewing machines, and alteration machines. If there are a total of 500 machines, the required manpower is 1000 individuals (including operators). Therefore, for 500 machines, 1000 manpower is needed in the ratio of 1:2 (a standard ratio across the industry).

Regards,
Chandru
Bangalore

From India, Bangalore

What do you do and where? Why do you want to know the answer? Do you know the difference between Direct and Indirect labor? Have you searched the web? I did and found quite a few sites that answer your question. I suggest that you also search the web and, if you are still not clear, then raise the question again. Have a nice day. Simhan


From United Kingdom

Dear Chandru Thanks for your nice clarification. But Would we like to count all machine (Working+Idle) & Existing manpower. If any standard ratio pls let us know. Thanks Md. Atiqul Islam Apu
From Bangladesh

Looking for something specific? - Join & Be Part Of Our Community and get connected with the right people who can help. Our AI-powered platform provides real-time fact-checking, peer-reviewed insights, and a vast historical knowledge base to support your search.






Contact Us Privacy Policy Disclaimer Terms Of Service

All rights reserved @ 2025 CiteHR ®

All Copyright And Trademarks in Posts Held By Respective Owners.