Our company declared two days of holiday in September 2018, i.e., 12.09.18 and 13.09.18. However, one or two employees were absent on the 10th, 11th, 14th, and 15th. Since they do not have any leave balance, these days were marked as absent. Therefore, I would like to inquire whether they are eligible for holiday payment.
Thank you.
From India, Bengaluru
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2Thank you.
From India, Bengaluru
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Dear Manu,
It is a matter of discretion of the employer. Though it is not mentioned explicitly in the post, there is a possible inference that all those employees rejoined duty on the 16th. Similarly, another inference is that their absence is not an uninformed one also becomes possible because of the usage of the term "absence" and the mention of marking them absent for want of leave at their credit in your post. In the absence of any leave to their credit, certainly the leave applied for should be treated as leave on loss of pay only.
Since these holidays actually fell in between the spells of their absence, they ought to have applied for permission to avail of the holidays in their leave applications. Otherwise, in my opinion, they would merge with the period of absence resulting in loss of pay for such holidays too.
From India, Salem
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It is a matter of discretion of the employer. Though it is not mentioned explicitly in the post, there is a possible inference that all those employees rejoined duty on the 16th. Similarly, another inference is that their absence is not an uninformed one also becomes possible because of the usage of the term "absence" and the mention of marking them absent for want of leave at their credit in your post. In the absence of any leave to their credit, certainly the leave applied for should be treated as leave on loss of pay only.
Since these holidays actually fell in between the spells of their absence, they ought to have applied for permission to avail of the holidays in their leave applications. Otherwise, in my opinion, they would merge with the period of absence resulting in loss of pay for such holidays too.
From India, Salem
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Employee would not be eligible for the two days holidays declared by the company.
From India, Pune
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From India, Pune
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Dear Sir/Madam,
Regarding LOP, I have one doubt. If an employee doesn't have leave balance and takes continuously 15 days off, it should be considered as LOP. However, if on any of those days a compulsory holiday falls, do we still need to pay them holiday compensation or not?
Please clarify.
Sunitha
From India, undefined
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Regarding LOP, I have one doubt. If an employee doesn't have leave balance and takes continuously 15 days off, it should be considered as LOP. However, if on any of those days a compulsory holiday falls, do we still need to pay them holiday compensation or not?
Please clarify.
Sunitha
From India, undefined
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Dear Ms. Sunitha,
Whenever an employee goes on Leave Without Pay (LOP) for a continuous long stretch, whether upon due authorization or unauthorized, the holidays, if any falling in between automatically merge with the LOP. It is not obligatory to pay salary by segregating such days from the leave period.
From India, Salem
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Whenever an employee goes on Leave Without Pay (LOP) for a continuous long stretch, whether upon due authorization or unauthorized, the holidays, if any falling in between automatically merge with the LOP. It is not obligatory to pay salary by segregating such days from the leave period.
From India, Salem
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