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Nautiyal04
Dear Seniors, If an employee is taking 160000 rupees per month, what would be his gratuity amount after 5 years as per Delhi State? Also, if we keep his basic salary at 25000 as per the Minimum Wages Act Delhi, the calculation will be done on 25000 or 50% of 160000. Please suggest the right way.

Thanks

From India, New Delhi
vmlakshminarayanan
939

Hi, Gratuity can be calculated on the last drawn Basic (+ DA if applicable). Last drawn Basic x 15/26 x number of years completed.
From India, Madras
saswatabanerjee
2392

Gratutiy is on basic and da
You are keeping DA at 15% of his gross.
This is why govt is putting minimum basic in the new wage code and other labour laws.

But at the moment, nothing wrong with your working, though I think it will make your company less attractive to prospective employees

From India, Mumbai
HR_Chandan
1

If the Basic + DA = 25,000/- After completion of 5 years service - 25,000x15x5/26 = 72,115/-
From India
Madhu.T.K
4234

Under Payment of Gratuity Act there is no mention about Basic Salary. The wages/ salary as per the Act shall include all emoluments that is payable to an employee as per contract of employment. The only exclusions are:
Overtime allowance
Bonus
House Rent Allowance
Commission and
other allowance.

A perusal of the above will make it clear that allowances which are not fixed and quantified in the appointment order/ contract of employment are the components which can be excluded from computation of gratuity. Of these HRA is the amount which will often be confused and legally HRA is payable only to those who reside in leased accommodation. It is payable only on another condition that the spouse is not in receipt of the same. If this component is available to all the employees, it will be termed as an allowance universally paid to all employees, and then it will be part of salary for the purpose of computation of gratuity.

For more details, please follow the link bellow

https://madhu-t-k.blogspot.com/2024/04/gratuity-qualifying-salary-some.html

The above observations are made by me based on my own experience. You can have a different opinion. In an establishment where an old system of payroll management exists, the wages should mean only Basic wage and Dearness allowance. But in CTC era, it should require a change. I don't think that if a person takes one day LOP (leave without Pay) his HRA will be paid in full, and that establishes that HRA is part of remuneration only. In order to be called an allowance excluded from the scope of wages it should be a 'compensatory' allowance, an allowance to compensate a cost.

From India, Kannur
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