Dear all i am facing a problem and requested you to provide the solution:
I have to calculate utilization and availability of a equipment:
suppose:
Shift hrs for a month = 300
Work hrs = 147
Break down hrs = 21
Than idle hrs= 300-(147+21) = 132
Now i am calculating availability
=(Work hrs + idle hrs)*100/ shift hours
And for utilization i m using
= work hrs*100/shift hrs
Pls. tell is it is right or wrong
From United States, Anchorage
7I have to calculate utilization and availability of a equipment:
suppose:
Shift hrs for a month = 300
Work hrs = 147
Break down hrs = 21
Than idle hrs= 300-(147+21) = 132
Now i am calculating availability
=(Work hrs + idle hrs)*100/ shift hours
And for utilization i m using
= work hrs*100/shift hrs
Pls. tell is it is right or wrong
From United States, Anchorage
First of all,
The statement is very abstract. IF you need concrete solutions, then you must supply concrete facts. Otherwise, the solution or the answer will also be abstract.
For e.g you have stated shift hours / month = 300. ie total available working hours.
break down hours , I suppose it is equipment break down hours = 21 hours.\
Then virtually machine or equipment available for production = 300-21 = 279 hours.
It is as simple as that.
Then you have mentioned as work hours , I presume it is men worked hours so far = 147 hours.
Then effective non utilization of man hours = 279 - 147 hours. In this it is not clear that break down hours is inclusive of worked hours. Since, you must understand that if equipment is break down for no fault of worker, his working hours cannot be discounted and he must be paid. Hope you understand.
Pls be very clear in your problem statement.
But given the datas as per statement in your problem , effective utilization of equipment of machinery = hours the machine put into work divided by the machine total available hours. Hope from this you can conclude.
From India, Mumbai
The statement is very abstract. IF you need concrete solutions, then you must supply concrete facts. Otherwise, the solution or the answer will also be abstract.
For e.g you have stated shift hours / month = 300. ie total available working hours.
break down hours , I suppose it is equipment break down hours = 21 hours.\
Then virtually machine or equipment available for production = 300-21 = 279 hours.
It is as simple as that.
Then you have mentioned as work hours , I presume it is men worked hours so far = 147 hours.
Then effective non utilization of man hours = 279 - 147 hours. In this it is not clear that break down hours is inclusive of worked hours. Since, you must understand that if equipment is break down for no fault of worker, his working hours cannot be discounted and he must be paid. Hope you understand.
Pls be very clear in your problem statement.
But given the datas as per statement in your problem , effective utilization of equipment of machinery = hours the machine put into work divided by the machine total available hours. Hope from this you can conclude.
From India, Mumbai
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