Dear Seniors!

I would like to know what rules and norms are followed regarding employee absenteeism due to a general strike in the state or the city.

My questions are:
1. Will that be treated as a paid holiday (if there is no option of an alternate working day)?
2. Is there any norm stating that if the attendance is less than, say, 20-30%, then only it can be declared as a paid holiday?

I would request all of you to provide some insight into the above situation.

Thanks and Regards,
Suchandra

From India, Calcutta
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Hi Suchandra,

Many companies make it a paid holiday, but at the same time, the company should not suffer because of the general strike. Therefore, most companies ask employees to work on a non-official day (for example, in MNCs, Saturday is a holiday, so they request employees to report on a specific Saturday and complete the work).

Hope others would agree with the same.

Thanks and Regards,
Navroz

From India
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Thank you very much for your contribution.

As I have already mentioned, there is no option for an alternate working day as Saturday is already a working day. In that case, what are the other options?

And most importantly, is there any such rule or norm that states if an employee's attendance percentage is less than 20-30% in total, then it automatically becomes a paid holiday? I would appreciate your feedback on this.

Thank you,
Suchandra

From India, Calcutta
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Hi Suchandra,

I was going through the details. Now, there are certain things:

1. If it is a curfew, then it will be a paid holiday.
2. But in the case of a general strike called by any party, it will be treated as an absence (in case there is no option of alternate working days).

Thanks,
Manish

From Denmark, Copenhagen
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Hi, I am working in a ITES company,where saturday is a working day.our employees was asked to work on sunday to compensate for the strike day. Hope this helps in some way. Sumathymaraimalaai
From India, Pondicherry
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Dear Suchandra,

An unbiased approach to dealing with such problems is vital. You have to probe the case, as a bundh need not necessarily be total; it can be partial. Therefore, the location of the company and each individual employee is important. Each employee's case has to be handled exclusively, and information needs to be gathered to determine whether the area where a particular employee stays was under a total bundh. If so, additional time off should be given. If not, then the employee can apply for leave.

In the event that the company area has experienced a total bundh, and employees in that area (including those from other companies) were physically unable to reach work due to the bundh, either a paid holiday or time off should be provided to all employees. For firms operating under a 24-hour production scenario with routine shifts, this issue must be addressed by considering the shift timings in relation to the bundh timings.

This topic is extensive and requires a detailed discussion. Thank you.

From Saudi Arabia, Al Khobar
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No worker can be penalized for any strike or cessation of work which is not an outcome of his/a unified coercive action on the part of his associates/union to which he owes allegiance. In other words, it is considered as a paid holiday, and the company can only request but not impose upon a worker to compensate for that day. If this is done through coercion by the company (which most rogue organizations (read 99% IT ITES firms do)), the person reserves the right to refuse the same, even if he has been made to sign an agreement/contract.

A general observation: most comments are comparing companies rather than commenting on the law itself. Irrespective of whether Company A does it or Company B, it is more important to do what is legal and lawful.

Regards


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It depends on the composition of employees in an organization. In BPOs, if the female employees are predominantly high, they tend to avoid coming to the office on the day of a general bandh for a variety of reasons. The main difficulty is the lack of transport facilities, and the other is fear. It is for the management to make a decision taking into account the prevailing ground realities. There is no mandatory order or rule from the Government - either Central or State.

The wise thing is to declare a paid holiday if the bandh is total, and if the bandh is partial, it is desirable to ignore the absenteeism.

From United States, Roslindale
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Hi,

If the workers cannot be made to suffer due to Bandh, so also the employer must not suffer for no fault of his. In our company, we used to adjust the absence against paid leave due to the workmen, either casual or earned leave.

There is no question of giving paid holiday to workmen. Either substitute it by working on a holiday or adjust it against paid leave due to the workmen.

Cyril

From India, Nagpur
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We declared a holiday on the day of the strike and had asked the employees to come in on the following Saturday. One of the employees was on privilege leave during the bandh, and consequently, the holiday has been included in his leave. He claims that he should be allowed to take a leave on the working Saturday as he has already taken a leave on the bandh day.
From India, Calcutta
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